The Word Puro w/Poll

First of all, in order to "communicate effectively," at least in (North) American English, one should state subject matter. So...who is "we?" Is "we" you and your best friend, members of CA, BOTL, North Americans in the US, or some other group? I'm going to assume for a moment that you mean North Americans in the US. With this assumption, are you stating that "we" standardized the Spanish language? If so, when did this happen?

"While languages are fluid over long periods of time, improper usage is improper usage..." This has some truth to it. When did "football" become "soccer?"

"Any usage outside [of a particular language's word's] single parameter is incorrect, regardless of the status of the one mangling the language." You do realize that North American's in the US do not speak proper English, don't you?

Originally Posted by lenguamor

We standardized languages for a reason: to communicate effectively. While languages are fluid over long periods of time, improper usage is improper usage, period, end of story.

A "puro" is a cigar whose component tobaccos are all grown in the same country. Any usage outside that single parameter is incorrect, regardless of the status of the one mangling the language.

I don't recall anyone ever saying "puro Dominicano," but I have heard "Nic puro," and "puro." I'm going to go out on a limb here and guess that "Nic puro" is as much of a North American idea as "burrito."

BTW, did you know that "pedo" is literally translated as "fart?" If you translate it with "puro" literally into American English it translates as "pure fart?" Now, you can claim this refers to a fart that only come from one person (such as Peter), but in Spanish it is more akin to the American English
slang phrase "bullsh*t," which, ironically, is quite relevant in your claim.

Lastly, part of being able to "communicate effectively" is not using absolutes such as "period" and "end of story."